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PGET2006
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Author:
pushpa, Posted on Saturday, February 18 @ 09:43:53 IST by Akil
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Pget 2006 code D5 (Full Question Paper)
1.Optic neuritis is the side effect of
a.Rifampicin
b.Isoniazid
c.Ethambutol
d.Pyrazinamide
2.Exudative pleural effusion is seen in all except
a.Tuberculosis
b.Rheumatoid disease
c.SLE
d.Cardiac failure
3.Acromegaly is due to increased
a.Growth harmone
b.Thyroid harmone
c.Adrenalin
d.Parathyroid harmone
4.Serum amylase is elevated in
a.Pancreatitis
b.Intestinal ischemia
c.Ruptured ovarian cyst
d.All of the above
5.Asterixis is caused by all except
a.Hepatic failure
b.Renal failure
c.Hypo capina
d.Phenytoin toxicity
6.Carcinoma lip commonly occurs in
a.Upper lip skin surface
b.Vermilion border of lower lip
c.Commisures
d.Mucosal surface of upper lip
7.Level V nodes in neck lymph nodes refer to
a.Anterior compartment nodes
b.Posterior triangle nodes
c.Sub mandibular nodes
d.Sub lingual nodes
8.The most common thyroid cancer is
a.Anaplastic
b.Medullary
c.Papillary
d.Follicular
9.The statement which is false regarding thyroglossal cyst
a.Almost always arises in the midline
b.Vestigeal remnant of second branchial cleft
c.Sistrunk's operation is indicated
d.Moves upwards on protrusion of the tongue
10.Bronchial cyst is located at
a.The junction of middle third & lower third of sternomastoid at anterior border
b.The junction of upper third & middle third of sternomastoid at its posterior border
c.The junction of middle third & lower third of sternomastoid at its posterior border
d.The junction of upper third and middle third of sternomastoid at its anterior border
11.Following are the prodrugs except one
a.Levodopa
b.Enalapil
c.Epinephrine
d.Proguanil
12.Which one of the following drugs is not a cardio selective(b1) beta blocker?
a.Metoprolol
b.Alprenolol
c.Atenolol
d.Esmolol
13.Which one of the following drugs is not an aminoglycoside?
a.Kanamycin
b.Tobramycin
c.Erythromycin
d.Streptomycin
14."Second gas effect" is exerted by the following gas when coadministered with halothane
a.Nitrogen
b.Cyclopropane
c.Nitrous oxide
d.Helium
15.Amphotericin B is not effective in the following fungal disease
a.Cryptococcosis
b.Histoplasmosis
c.Blastomycosis
d.Dermatophytosis
16.The most common cause of mitral regurgitation in a patient who has no evidence of mitral stenosis
a.Congenital
b.Mitral valve prolapse
c.Rheumatic heart disease
d.Secondary to aortic valve disease
17.A patient with hypertension
a.Will always have symptoms
b.Secondary to aortic valve disease
c.Will usually not have an underlying identifiable cause or condition
d.Can always have the blood pressure controlled by single drug.
18.On inspection of mouths of patients with malabsorption following may be observed
a.Leucoplakia
b.Aphthous Ulcers
c.Black tongue
d.Macroglossia
19.If a patient present with generalized pruritis the following condition should be considered as a possibility
a.Cholestatic jaundice
b.Addison's disease
c.Acromegaly
d.Myxedema
20.Diseases typically acquired by man from animals include
a.Hepatitis A
b.Cholera
c.Tuberculosis
d.Leptospirosis
21.Lophotrichous flagella are seen in
a.Spirilla
b.Vibrio
c.Psudomonas
d.Klebsiella
22.The efficacy of moist heat sterilisation is tested by using spores of
a.Bacillus anthracis
b.Bacillus cereus
c.Bacillus subtilis
d.Bacillus stearothermophilus
23.Miscroscope was invented by
a.Louis Pasteur
b.Hippocrates
c.Robert Koch
d.Leeuwen Hoeck
24.Plasmid is transmitted to other bacteria in
a.Transformation
b.Transduction
c.Conjugation
d.All of the above
25.The immunoglobulin which crosses placenta is
a.Ig G
b.Ig M
c.Ig A
d.Ig D
26.Inferior meatus of nasal cavity contains the opening of
a.Maxillary sinus
b.Middle ethmoidal sinus
c.Nasolacrimal duct
d.Frontal sinus
27.The artery that passes forwards through cavernous sinus is
a.Supra trochlear artery
b.Supra orbital artery
c.Internal carotid artery
d.Anterior ethmoidal artery
28.Accessory meningeal artery enters cranial cavity through
a.Foramen lacerum
b.Foramen rotundum
c.Foramen spinosum
d.Foramen ovale
29.Basic metabolic unit of bone is
a.Osteon
b.Osteoblast
c.Osteocyte
d.Osteoclast
30.Mesial developmental depression is the characteric feature of
a.Maxillary first premolar
b.Maxillary second premolar
c.Mandibular first premolar
d.Mandibular second premolar
31.The following Carbohydrate is called Animal Starch
a.Glucose
b.Fructose
c.Sucrose
d.Glycogen
32.Lesch Nyhan Syndrome is due to the deficiency of
a.HGPR Tase (Total)
b.PRPP Glutamine Amino Transferase
c.CTP Synthe Tase
d.OMP Decarboxylase
33.Thyroxine is derived from
a.Tyrosine
b.Tyramine
c.Taurine
d.Tryptophan
34.The Storage form of Carbohydrates in our body is
a.Starch
b.Glycogen
c.Sucrose
d.Cellulose
35.The Chief cation in extra cellular fluid
a.Sodium
b.Potassium
c.Calcium
d.Magnesium
36.How much fraction of methylmercury
a.20%
b.50%
c.80%
d.100%
37.The average particle size of powdered gold is
a.10 µm
b.15 µm
c.30 µm
d.0.1 mm
38.Loss of gloss test in gypsum product is an indication for
a.Adequate mixing time
b.Adequate working time
c.Initial set
d.Final set
39.Stabilisation of stainless steel is achieved by addition of
a.Carbon
b.Chromium
c.Nickle
d.Titanium
40.The best method to control gelation time while mixing alginate material is
a.Alter the temperature of water
b.Alter the water/power ratio
c.Increase the mixing time
d.Reduce the percentage of retarder
41.Pathognomonic feature of cervicofacial actinomycosis is
a.Involvement of submandibular region
b.Presence of multiple discharging sinuses
c.Presence of Sulphurgranules in the pus
d.Presence of non healing tooth socket
42.Salivary calculi are most commonly discovered in
a.Parotid glad duct
b.Stenson's duct
c.Maxillary sinus
d.Submandibular duct
16.In AIDS, Hairy leukoplakia is found most commonly in which location
a.Hard palate
b.Buccal mucosa
c.Lateral borders of tongue
d.Soft palate
44.Presence of Bence-Jones proteins is a characteristic features of
a.Infectious mononucleosis
b.Multiple myeloma
c.Malignant melanoma
d.Paget's disease
45.The X-Ray tube is evacuated to facilitate
a.The movement of electrons
b.The oxidation of filament
c.The production of electrons
d.The collision of electrons
46.The energy of resultant photon is numerically
a.Double the energy of electron that hits the nucleus of target atom
b.More than the energy of electron that hits the nucleus target atom
c.Less than the energy of electron that hits the nucleus of a target atom
d.Equal to the energy of electron that hits the nucleus of a target atom
47.Radiographic image of Botryoid odontogenic cyst has an
a.Multiocular Radiolucent appearance
b.Unilocular Radiolucent appearance
c.Solitary Radio-opaque appearance
d.Salt & Pepper appearance
48.In heamolitic Anemias the Radiographic appearance of laminadura is
a.Normal
b.Lost
c.Less Radio-opaque
d.More Radio-opaque
49.The use of intensifying screens results in
a.Greater clarity in a Radiograph
b.Recording of minute details
c.Reduction of dose to the patient
d.Reduction in the speed of the film
50."Window of Infectivity" in children is possibly seen in the age group of
a.6-18 months
b.19-33 months
c.34-48 months
d.36-60 months
51."Wand" is the name of equipment used for
a.Jet injection
b.Electronic Dental anaesthesia
c.Computer controlled local anaesthesia
d.General anaesthesia
52.Dilaceration of a permanent incisor is resulted due to
a.Extrusion of deciduous predecessor
b.Intrusion of deciduous predecessor
c.Avulsion of deciduous predecessor
d.None of the above
53.Most of the cerebral palsy children are
a.Spastic
b.Dyskinetic
c.Ataxic
d.Mixed
54.Distal shoe appliance is contra indicated in
a.Hemophilia
b.Congenital heart disease
c.Rheumatic fever
d.All the above
55.PH at which citric acid should be applied for root biomodification
a.1
b.2
c.2.5
d.3
56.The brushing technique that can be recommended for the routine patient with or without periodontal involvement
a.Bass method
b.Modified stillman method
c.Charter's method
d.Leonard technique
57.Periodontal therapy should not be performed in patients who are seen after a stroke
a.For 3 months
b.For 6 months
c.For 9 months
d.For 12 months
58.Peripheral buttressing bone formation is called as
a.Ledging
b.Hemisepta
c.Crater
d.Lipping
59.Periostat is
a.20 mg capsule of doxycycline hyclate
b.40 mg capsule of doxycycline hyclate
c.100 mg capsule of doxycycline hyclate
d.200 mg capsule of doxycycline hyclate
60.During scaling and root planing proceedures optional angulation is between
a.35 and 45 degrees
b.45 and 90 degrees
c.10 and 20 degrees
d.More than 90 degrees
61.The operator position to perform scaling in mandibular right posterior extent on lingual aspect is
a.Front position
b.Left side of the patient
c.Right side of the patient
d.Back position
62.Langer technique is used in
a.Sub epithelial connective tissue grafts
b.Free soft tissue autografts
c.Fenestration operation
d.Vestibular extension operation
63.For interproximal areas of diastemata or for wide interdental spaces to properly adopt the interproximal papilla against the bone, the recommended technique of suturing method is
a.Interdental lgation
b.Horizontal mattress suture
c.Continuous, independent sling suture
d.Closed anchor suture
64.when osseous defects amenable to regeneration are present, the technique of choice in order of first preference is
a.Modified widman flap
b.Apically displaced flap
c.Scaling & root planning
d.Papilla preservation flap
65.Among the following drugs which is not an immunosuppressive agent
a.Levamizole
b.Azathioprine
c.Cyclosporin
d.Corticosteroid
66.Antibiotic recommended for prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients who are allergic to penicillins
a.Clindamycin
b.Azithromycin
c.Clarithromycin
d.All the above
67.Role of sodium metabisulfite in local anesthetic solution is
a.To maintain isotonicity of solution
b.Antioxidant for vasoconstrictor
c.Preservative
d.Antioxidant for local anesthetic agent
68.The new immature bone that forms during distraction osteogenesis is known as
a.Regenerate
b.Osteoid
c.Callus
d.Osteointegrate
69.In bilateral parasymphyseal fractures of the mandible the fractured segment is displaced posteriorly under the influence of
a.Mylohyoid and geniohyoid
b.Masseter and medial pterygoid
c.Buccinator and post belly of digastric
d.Genioglossus, Geniohyod and posterior belly of digastric
70.Specific and non speicific hypothesis was delineated by
a.Walter Loesche
b.William Hunter
c.Socransky
d.Slot
71.Electronic trasducer used to measure gingival crevicular fluid is
a.Periotron
b.Perio Test
c.Perio Scan
d.Perio Scope
72.Furcation defects are often diagnosed by
a.Naber's probe
b.DNA probe
c.William probe
d.Michigan probe
73.Frenectomy is a surgical procedure where in
a.Gingiva is removed
b.Bone is removed
c.Frenum is only incised
d.Frenum is completely removed
74.Transfer of the patient from actve treatment status to a maintenance programe for total patient care is a
a.Step forward
b.Step backward
c.Definitive step
d.Premature step
75.Sialosis is
a.Non-inflammatory non-neoplastic swelling of major salivary glands
b.Disease associated with sailors
c.Stone in salivary gland
d.Sialorrhea
76.Oral pathognomonic sign of measles
a.Fordyce's spots
b.Koplick's spots
c.Cafe-Au-lait spots
d.Purpuric spots
77.Osteomyelitis is defined as an inflammation of
a.Periosteum of the bone
b.Haversion system of the bone
c.Medullary portion of the bone
d.Cortical bone
78.Ludwigs angina begins usually in
a.Sub-lingual space
b.Sub-mental space
c.Sub-maxillary space
d.Sub-masseteric space
79.Acute lymphonodular pharyingitis is caused by
a.Coxsaskie virus A-16
b.Coxsaskie virus A-10
c.Coxsaskie virus A-6
d.Coxsaskie virus A-22
80.The earliest phase in public health is
a.Disease control
b.Health promotion
c.Social engineering
d.Health for all
81.The dental auxillary who fabricates dentures directly to patients is called
a.Dental lab technician
b.Expanded function dental auxillary
c.Denturist
d.Dental assistant
82.Beneficence is
a.To do no harm
b.To go good
c.Justice
d.Respect for persons
83.The ideal physical quality of life index score for any country should be
a.0
b.50
c.100
d.Infinity
84.The Consumer Protection Act was passed by the Parliament in the year
a.1996
b.1976
c.1986
d.2000
85.The test used to evaluate the caries activity in very young children is
a.Caloremetric synder test
b.The swab test
c.Susceptibility test
d.Alban test
86.The study that attempts to do no more than describe the pattern of occurance of a disease or a condition relative to other characteristics of the population is
a.Descriptive epidemiology
b.Specific epidemiology
c.Clinical epidemiology
d.General epidemiology
87.Duraphat is a
a.Fluoride mouth wash
b.Fluoride varnish
c.Fluoride tooth paste
d.Fluoride gum paint
88.Fluorspar used in water flouridation is
a.Sodium Fluoride
b.Calcium Fluoride
c.Sodium Silico Fluoride
d.Silico Fluorides
89.Histogram is
a.Areas of segments in circle compound
b.Pictorial representation
c.Serioes of blocks
d.Bars seperated by appropriate spaces
90."The Cigarettes Act of 1975" was introduced by the Government of India on
a.1st April 1976
b.1st May 1975
c.1st June 1976
d.1st January 1975
91.April 7th is observed as
a.World Anti-AIDS day
b.Doctors day
c.World Health day
d.Anti-Tobbaco day
92.The "Swish and Swallow" technique is
a.Water fluoridation programme
b.Salt fluoridation programme
c.Milk fluoridation programme
d.Class-room based fluoride tablet programme
93.Case control study is
a.Prospective study
b.Retrospective study
c.Longitudinal study
d.None of the above
94.The prevention of emergence or development of risk factors in countries where they have not appeared is what type of prevention?
a.Primary
b.Secondary
c.Tertiary
d.Priomordial
95.When a calcified root canal can not be located or instrumented
a.Extraction is the treatment of choice
b.Retrograde and replantation procedures should be considered
c.The dentist must proceed with the understanding that an unexplored or unfilled canals is worse than perforation
d.It is no longer accessible to bacterial infection
96.When the spread of caries along DEJ exceeds the caries in the contiguous enamel it is termed as
a.Forward caries
b.Residual caries
c.Rampant caries
d.Backward caries
97.Which of the following is not present in original G.V.Block's classification of caries
a.Class IV lesion
b.Class II lesion
c.Class III lesion
d.Class VI lesion
98.The second number in the instrument formula of a gingival margi+nal trimmer indicates
a.Length of the blade
b.Width of the blade
c.Primary cutting edge angle
d.Blade angle
99.Smear layer debris in root canal is best removed by
a.Citric acid
b.17% EDTA+25% Na O Cl
c.5.25% Na O Cl only
d.17% EDTA only
100.The minimum required distance recommended between implant and superior aspects of inferior alveolar canal is
a.1 mm
b.2 mm
c.4 mm
d.6 mm
101.Tachphylaxis during local anesthesia is brought about through the following factors except
a.Increased PH of the tissues
b.Hypernatremia
c.Transudation
d.Localised haemorrhage
102.Antispastic drug used in treating trigeminal neuralgia is
a.Gabapentin
b.Nortriptyline
c.Clonazepam
d.Baclofen
103.Le fort I fracture is also known as
a.Pyramidal fracture
b.Suprazygomatic fracture
c.Guerin fracture
d.Guardman's fracture
104.The nerve most likely to get injured during incision placement in wisdom tooth surgery is
a.Lingual nerve
b.Inferior dental nerve
c.Mylohyoid nerve
d.Mental nerve
105.The following muscles are supplied by Mandibular Nerve except
a.Tensor Tympani
b.Tensor Veli Palatini
c.Levator Veli Palatini
d.Mylohyoid
106.Mastoid air sinus is posteriorly related to
a.Cavernous Sinus
b.Sigmoid Sinus
c.Straight Sinus
d.Spheno Parietal Sinus
107.The medical surface of the neck of the mandible is related to the
a.Inferior alveolar nerve
b.Lingual nerve
c.Auriculo temporal nerve
d.Chorda tympani nerve
108.The epithelium lining of the maxillary air sinus is
a.Simple squamous
b.Simple cuboidal
c.Ciliated columnar
d.Stratified squamous non keratinized
109.Secretions of the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland are stimulated by
a.Increase in serum calcium
b.Increase in serum thyroxin
c.Decrease in serum calcium
d.Decrease in serum thyroxin
110.Diseases of the liver can produce bleeding tendensies because
a.Synthesis of Vit K is decreased
b.Production of prothrombin is low
c.Plasma protein levels are low
d.All of the above
111.The feature of slow pain is
a.No projection to reticular nucler
b.Carried by Aδ fibers
c.Poor localisation
d.Glutamate is the neuro transmitter
112.Cyanosis is bluish discolouration of skin due to more than .......gms / 100 ml in blood of deoxygenated Haemoglobin
a.2
b.5
c.8
d.10
113.Normal blood flow pattern is
a.Predominantly stream line
b.Predominantly turbulent
c.Streamline and turbulent in equal ratio
d.Durecy streamline
114.Coronary blood flow to the left ventricle is predominantly from
a.Right coronary artery and during diastole
b.Right coronary artery and during systole
c.Left coronary artery and during systole
d.Left coronary artery and during diastole
115.The apico-occlusal taper of the preparation for a cast restoration should be
a.15° - 30°
b.40° - 45°
c.2° - 5°
d.7° - 10°
116.Fourth canal in a maxillary first molar is most commonly present in
a.Palatal root
b.Mesio buccal root
c.Mesio lingual root
d.Disto buccal root
117.Tip angle of an endodontic instrument should be
a.70 ± 10°
b.75 ± 15°
c.70 ± 5°
d.70 ± 15°
118.K flex files are manufactured from
a.Diamond shaped blank
b.Cylindrical blank
c.Square blank
d.Triangular blank
119.Zone of irritation is characterised by
a.Poly morpho nuclear leucocytes
b.Round cells infiltration
c.Macrophages and osteo clasts
d.Fibroblasts & osteoblasts
120.The process of heating acast alloy to eliminate composition difference is
a.Hardening heat treatment
b.Softening heat treatment
c.Homogenisation
d.Crystalisation
121.Type IV gold alloy contains
a.2% gold
b.13% gold
c.75% gold
d.80% gold
122.Galvanism is
a.Tarnishing
b.Electrolytic corrosion
c.Chemical corrosion
d.Annealing
123.Shape memory exhibited by
a.Beta titanium
b.Nickel titanium
c.Cobalt chromium
d.Nickel chromium
124.Non gama 2 alloy is
a.Resistant to marginal leakage
b.Resistant to discolouration
c.Resistant to Sensitisation
d.Resistant to corrosion
125.Platelets adhere to the subendothelial collagen through one of the following
a.Platelet factor 4
b.Fibro nectin
c.Von wille brands factor
d.None of the above
126.Hutchinson triad-Notched central incisors, blindness and deafness are seen in
a.Primary syphilis
b.Secondary syphilis
c.Tertiary syphilis
d.Congenital syphilis
127.Flask shaped ulcer is a feature of
a.Cholera
b.Amoebiasis
c.Sac moneccosis
d.Bacillary dysentry
128.Sqamous cell carcinoma most common in mouth is in
a.Upper lip
b.Lower lip
c.Tongue
d.Floor of mouth
129.One of the following is not capable of replication
a.Neuron
b.Liver
c.Kidney
d.None of the above
130.Sodium bisulphite used in dental local anaesthetic acts as
a.Antibacterial for lignocaine
b.Antibacterial for adrenaline
c.Antioxident for methylparaben
d.Antioxident for adrenaline
131.Abducent nerve paralysis is the earliest finding in the case of
a.Lefort III fracture
b.Naso orbito ethmoid fracture
c.Zygomatic fracture
d.Cavernous sinus thrombosis
132.Dental extraction when indicated in a controlled haemophiliacs should be done with
a.Nerve block like inferior alveollar
b.Endotracheal general anaesthesia
c.Field block
d.Periodontal ligament injection of L.A.
133.The technique of doing the incison and drainage of an abscess is known as
a.Andrew's method
b.Hilton's method
c.Nilaton's method
d.Killey's method
134.In children fracture mandible which has not been perfectly reduced but has become firm with slight imperfection the choice of the management would be
a.Arch bar and elastic traction
b.Accept the slight imperfection and allow for later remodelling
c.Refracture and plating
d.Refracture and interosseous wiring
135.Time period usually required for erupting premolar tooth to move through one (1) mm of bone is
a.1-2 months
b.4-5 months
c.6-9 months
d.10-12 months
136.Prophylactic restoration (Odontotomy) was introduced by
a.Hyatt
b.Bodecker
c.Buonocore
d.Herman
137.Place of the child in the pedodontic treatment triangle is
a.At the base
b.In the centre
c.At the apex
d.None of the above
138.Complete pulpectomy technique for primary molars is developed by
a.Garcia-Godoy
b.Buckley
c.Starkey
d.Sweet
139.The deciduous molar relation indicative of a developing angles class II malocclusion is
a.Flush terminal plane
b.Mesial step
c.Distal step
d.None of the above
140.Trubyte tooth indicator is
a.Reinforced tooth for posterior
b.Determine the size of the maxillary lateral incisor
c.To measure the length of the lip
d.To determine the size of maxillary central incisor
141.The irreversible hydrocolloid impression material used in removable partial denture prosthesis
a.Agar Agar
b.Alginate
c.Silicone
d.Thiobal
142.The maximum bite force for persons wearing complete denture when compared to persons with natural teeth appears to be less by how many times
a.5-6 times
b.4-5 times
c.3-4 times
d.2-3 times
143.How much minimum amount of alloy percentage by weight of noble elements in high noble metals
a.60% by weight of noble elements
b.30% Gold
c.40% by weight of noble elements
d.Less than 40% by weight of noble elements
144.Gingival retraction card mpregnated with epinephrine is contraindicated in
a.Cardiovascular diseases
b.Diabetes
c.Hyperthyroidism
d.All of the above
145.Which of the following is not a mouth temperature wax
a.Adaptol
b.Korecta type I
c.HL physiologic paste
d.Iowa wax
146.Posterior palatal seal is recorded when the head is bent at
a.150°
b.30°
c.60°
d.45°
147.Size of the bur for preparing lingual rest seat for an RPD is
a.1/4th of an inch
b.3/4th of an inch
c.½ an inch
d.1 inch
148.When the ceramic crown is contra indicated
a.More conservative restoration
b.Less conservative restoration
c.Rampant caries
d.Root canal treated tooth
149.Conservative altrnative to full coverage for improving the appearance of an anterior tooth is
a.Full veneer metal crown
b.Porcelain jacket crown
c.Three-Quarter crown
d.Laminate veneer
150.The angle between occlusal rest and the vertical minor connector from which it originates is
a.90°
b.100°
c.120°
d.Less than 90°
151."Fishbelly" design refers to which type of pontic in fixed partial denture?
a.Saddle
b.Hygienic
c.Ovate
d.Modified ridge lap
152.Continuous clasp is a type of
a.Major connector
b.Minor connector
c.Direct retainer
d.Indirect retainer
153.Bone loss following extraction is
a.Less for first 6 months
b.Less for first 1 month
c.More for first 6 months
d.Process uniformly for first one year
154.The modules of elasticity of an alloy refers to
a.Flexibility
b.Ductility
c.Stiffness
d.Malleability
155.An example of exploring instrument
a.Reamer
b.Smooth broach
c.File
d.Barbed broach
156.Lining cement used is
a.Zinc-Oxide Eugenol
b.Zinc-phosphate cement
c.Calcium Hydroxide
d.Alginate
157.The most common cause of flap injury is
a.Insufficient extension of releasing incisions
b.Excessive extension of releasing incisions
c.Using undermining elevation
d.Improper reactor positioning
158.The most important aspect of irrigation of canal is
a.Aspiration of solution
b.The irrigating needle used
c.Chelating action of solution
d.Volume of solution
159.The bleaching agent prescribed for night guard bleaching technique is
a.Hydrogen peroxide –2%
b.Sodium hypochlorite – 5.25%
c.Hydrochloric acid
d.Carbamide peroxide 15%
160.Implant studies on jaw rotations were conducted by
a.Moss
b.Balchier
c.Bjork
d.Sicher
161.Child has a flush terminal plane early in mixed dentition, movement of the lower molar forward relative to the upper molar by
a.1 mm
b.1.5 mm
c.2 mm
d.3.5 mm
162.When the twin block appliances is enlarged in full closure the upper and lower bite blocks interlock at
a.45° Angle
b.60° Angle
c.70° Angle
d.90° Angle
163.The sequence in which growth of jaw occurs
a.Width
b.Breadth
c.Length
d.Height
164.Patient friendly functional appliance
a.Bionator
b.Activator
c.Twin block
d.Frankel
165.Leukodema has a characteristic sign that it
a.Disappears on stretching
b.Remains fluctuant throughout
c.Is not fluctuant
d.Has a malignant potential
166.In catalon's appliance (Inclined plane) the plane should be at approximately 45 degrees to
a.Occlusal plane
b.Long axis of the tooth
c.Curve of sphee
d.To facial plane
167.Imbrication denotes
a.Teeth which irregularly arranged within the arch due to lack of space for them
b.Lack of space due extra teeth
c.Spacing of teeth
d.Crowding in the posterior of segment of arch
168.A band of fibrous tissue which slings the tooth between the walls of the crept according to sicher is
a.Hammock ligament
b.Gumphosis
c.Dento alveolar ligament
d.Fibrosis
169.To protrude the mandible the following muscles will contract in conjunction with controlled stabilizing of the opening muscles
a.Outer and inner layers of temporalis
b.Contraction of posterior fibres of temporalis and ghiolyoid
c.Lateral and medial pterygoid muscles
d.Mylohyoid and temporalis
170.The combined width of decidious canines and first and second molar is greater than that of the permanent canine and premolars in the lower is by
a.3mm
b.1.7 mm
b.1mm
d.Equal
171.South end clasp by stephens is more effective on
a.Upper central incissars
b.Canines
c.First Molars
d.On any tooth
172.In condition like treacher collin syndrome and hemifacial microsomia the defect is parimarily in
a.Origin and migration of neural crest cell
b.Germ layer formation
b.Differentiation of tissues
d.Neural tube formation
173.Respond is a
a.Invisible retainer
b.Braided wire used in pea for alignment
c.Adhesive-pre coated (APC) bracket system
d.Clear bracket
174.Myofunctional exercises were first advocated by
a.Robin 1902
b.Moyers 1925
c.Rogers 1918
d.Kingsly 1930
175.The main aim of frankel appliance is influence
a.Function of tongue
b.Tempero mandibular joint
c.Outer neuro muscular envelope
d.Control vertical dimension
176.The fundamental defect in down syndrome is the presence of an extra chromosome in the affected individuals karyotype this was proven by
a.Le Jeune
b.Turpin
c.Gautier
d.All of the above
177.Usually the natal teeth are
a.Supermumerary primary incisors
b.Prematurely erupted primary teeth
c.Variations of Epstein pearls
d.Variations of Bohn's nodules
178.Severe crowding is
a.Crowding of more than 2 mm
b.Crowding of more than 5 mm
c.Crowding of more than 8 mm
d.Crowding of more than 10 mm
179.Radiation causes the following biological effects in younger tissues and organs
a.Carcinogenesis
b.Teratogenesis
c.Mutagenesis
d.All the above
180.Technique considered as the "Corner stone of behaviour management" is
a.Voice Control
b.Tell show do
b.Hand over mouth exercise
d.Reinforcement
181.Gas gangrene is not caused by
a.Clostridium welchii
b.Clostridium septi*****
c.Clostridium emotiens
d.Clostridium tetani
182.The nerve which lies in association to wharton duct is
a.Facial
b.Spinal accessory
b.Hypoglossal
d.Lingual
183.The following thyroid diseases are diagnosed by FNAE except
a.Follicular carcinoma
b.Papillary carcinoma
c.Medullary carcinoma
d.Malignant lymphoma
184.Sjogrons syndrome refers to disease of
a.Thyroid glands
b.Parotid glands
c.Parathyroid glands
d.Multiple endocrine glands
185.Cause of persistences of a sinus & fistules
a.Foreign body
b.Unrelieved distal obstruction
c.Presence of malignancy
d.All of the above
186.Abtrophung(or) dropping of effect is seen in
a.Intradermal nervus
b.Junctional nervus
c.Compound nevus
d.Blue nevus
187.Physiologic wearing of a tooth as a result of tooth to tooth contact is
a.Attrition
b.Abrasion
c.Erosion
d.All the above
188.Triangular frontal defect occurs in
a.Crouzon disease
b.Crouzon syndrome
c.Cranio facial dysostosis
d.All the above
189.Difference between ranula and mucous cyst is presence of
a.epithelial lining in ranula
b.Mucous glands in mucocele
c.Extra vasation of mucous in mucocele
d.Transparency of ranula
190.In hypoplastic amelogenesis imperfecta
a.Shape normal enamel soft
b.Shape normal enamel brown
c.Shape abnormal enamel normal
d.Shape abnormal enamel soft
191.Malignancy in pleomorpaic adenoma is indicated by
a.Rapid enlargement
b.Pain
c.Fascial nerve paralysis
d.All of the above
192.Patients with sjogrens syndrome have higher incidence of
a.Papillary carcinoma thyroid
b.Pleomorphic Adenoma
c.Malignant lymphoma
d.None of the above
193.Boggy gums seen in
a.Pregnancy
b.Leukemia
c.Polycythemia
d.Only a & b
194.Which type of ameloblastoma appears to be aggressive with a marked proclivity for recurrence
a.Follicular ameloblastoma
b.Plexi form ameloblastoma
c.Granular cell ameloblastoma
d.Acanthomatous ameloblastoma
195.Most common faecalis
a.Streptococcus faecalis
b.Streptococcus viridans
c.Strpetococcus mutans
d.Staphylococcus albus
196.On an average in the saliva of an adult man the lactobacilli count is
a.50000 ml
b.75000 ml
c.70000 ml
d.30000 ml
197.The most important organism to initiate dental caries is
a.Streptococcus pyogenes
b.Streptococcus viridans
c.Streptococcus mutans
d.Streptococcus pneumoniae
198.Samples from root canal can be collected by
a.Swab
b.Syringe and needle
c.Trocar
d.Sterile paper points
199.The prime aetiological candidate for dental plaque is
a.Streptococcus sanguis
b.Streptococcus milleri
c.Streptococcus mutans
d.Streptococcus mitis
200.Diptheria toxin acts by
a.Increasing levels of cramps
b.Inhibiting protein synthesis
c.Inhibiting acetyl choline release
d.Inhibiting glucose transport
Note:
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