AIPG 2006 question paper MDS : RxBDS

Full Question Paper (Q1-Q200)

1) All of the following are correct with regard to acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, except:
1. There is necrosis of the interdental papillae.
2. Sloughing of the necrotic tissue presents as a pseudomembrane over the tissues.
3. It is associated with decreased resistance to infection.
4. It causes chronic inflammation of the gingival.

2) Which one of the following is the cause of dilacerations ?
1. Trauma to the tooth germ during root development.
2. Abnormal displacement of tooth germ during root development.
3. Abnormal proliferation of enamel epithelium during tooth development.
4. Abnormal displacement of ameloblasts during tooth formation.

3) The most common site of occurrence of lateral periodontal cyst is:
1. Between the mandibular cuspid and first premolar.
2. Maxillary tuberosity area.
3. Between the maxillary premolars.
4. Mandibular third molar area.

4) In the Taurodontism, the teeth exhibit:
1. Elongated, large pulp chambers and short roots.
2. Elongated, small pulp chambers and short roots.
3. Elongated, small pulp chambers and large roots.
4. Short, small pulp chambers and large roots.

5) Which one of is the junction of the frontal, parietal, temporal and greater wing of sphenoid?
1. Lambda.
2. Inion.
3. Pterion.
4. Vertex. . i-

6) Which of the following statements is true regarding Lathe cut silver alloy?
1. Requires least amount of mercury.
2. Achieves lowest compressive strength at 1 hr.
3. Has tensile strength, both at 15 minutes and 7 days is comparable to high copper, unicompositional alloys.
4. Has lower creep value.

7) Corrosion of amalgam restoration:
1. Can extend upto a depth of 100-500 um.
2. Decreases if tin content of alloy increases.
3. Is promoted by gama phase of alloy articles.
4. Is resisted the most by copper-tin phase in high copper amalgams.

8) Over-trituration of silver alloy and mercury:
1. Reduces contraction.
2. Increases the strength of lathe-cut alloy but reduces the strength of spherical alloy amalgam.
3. Decreases creep.
4. Gives a dull and crumbly amalgam mix.

9) Which of the following is true about Agar hydrocolloid impression material?
1. Liquefies between 71-100°C.
2. Solidifies between 50-70°C.
3. Facilitates fabrication of metal dyes.
4. Can not register fine surface details.

10) Which of the following is not true about elastomeric impression?
1. Single mix materials have higher viscosity.
2. Shear thinning is related to viscosity of mono phase impression material.
3. Improper mixing of material can cause permanent deformation of impression.
4. Putty-wash technique of impression reduces dimensional change on setting.

11) Apoptosis is suggestive of:
1. Liquefaction degeneration.
2. Coagulation necrosis.
3. Neoangiogenesis.
4. Epithelial dysplasia.

12) Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by:
1. Acanthosis
2. Acantholysis.
3. Auspilz's sign.
4. Wickham's striae.

13) Which one of the following is Oral Precancer?
1. Oral hairy leukoplakia.
2. While spongy naevus.
3. Hairy B cell leukemia.
4. Speckeled leukoplakia.

14.) The important microorganism for dentinal caries is:
1. Actinomyosisactinobacillus.
2. Borrelia vincentii.
3. Streptococus mutatis.
4. Streptococus viridans.

15) Radiographically snow driven appearance suggests:
1. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour.
2. Calcifying odontogenic cyst.
3. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumour.
4. Keratocyst.
16) Which of the following is not responsible for endogenous staining of teeth during development?
1. Tetracycline.
2. Rh incompatibility.
3. Neonatal liver disease.
4. Vitamin C deficiency.

17) If incidence = 50 cases/1000 population/year and mean duration of disease = 5 years, then prevalence would be:
1. 10.
2. 250.
3. 1/10.
4. 1/250.

18) Regarding case control study all the following are correct, except:
1. Risk factors can be identified.
2. It measures incidence.
3. Used in the study of rare diseases.
4. Requires few subjects.

19) In adults, the spinal cord normally ends at:
1. Lower border of LI.
2. Lower border of L3.
3. Lower border of SI.
4. Lower border of L5.

20) Iron is present in all of the following except:
1. Myoglobin.
2. Cytochrome.
3. Catalase.
4. Pyruvate Kinase.

21) Break point chlorination means:
1. Start of chlorination process.
2. End of chlorination process.
3. When free residual chlorine starts appearing.
4. After partial saturation of water with chlorine.

22) Square root of pg/n indicates:
1. Standard error of mean.
2. Standard error of difference of means.
3. Standard error of proportions.
4. Standard error of difference in proportions.

23) In health education program, a group of 10 people are planning to speak on a topic of common interest. Which one of Following is best educational approach?
1. Panel discussion.
2. Symposium.
3. Group discussion.
4. Workshop.

24) The National AIDS Control Program has the following components, except:
1. Sero Surveillance.
2. Health Education & Information.
3. Screening of blood and blood products.
4. Banning of sexual contact with foreigners.

25) Which of the following is used as a thickening agent in dentifrices?
1. Calcium Carbonate, Calcium Phosphate and Calcium Sulphate.
2. Sodium Bicarbonate, Aluminium Oxide.
3. Sodium Lauryl Sulphate and Sodium Lauryl Succiriate.
4. Carboxymethyl Cellulose, alginate amylose.

26) Which of the following techniques would be the best preventive measure for dental caries?
1. Elimination of sugars from the diet.
2. Reduce frequency of intake of cariogenic food stuffs.
3. Rinse and swish with water after each meal and snacks.
4. Substitution of alcohol - based sugar for sucrose.

27) Which of the following factors in the Stephan's curve is related to the caries incidence and sugar intake:
1. Physical form of sugar.
2. Frequency of sugar intake.
3. pH of plaque.
4. Quantity of sugar intake.

28) The prevalence of dental caries in a community in the year 2000 and 2003 was 18% and 38% respectively. The incidence of caries for the same population in three years would be:
1. 38%.
2. 20%.
3. 10%.
4. 56%.

29) The mean DMFT values for 12 year old school children is 2/5. 68% of the population has DMFT values between 2 and 3. The standard deviation for the population is:
1. 0.5
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3

30) An example for primary prevention of dental diseases is:
1. Scaring & polishing and filling.
2. Extractions, RCT and periodontal surgeries.
3. Wearing gloves and sterilization of the instruments.
4. Replacements of lost teeth and orthodontic treatments.

31) To transfer the axis orbital plane we require:
1. Arbitrary face-bow,
2. Kinemetic face-bow.
3. Either Arbitrary or Kinemetic face-bow.
4. An Ear bow only.

32) To replace a missing canine, the best pontic design is:
1. Modified ridge lap.
2. Ridge lap.
3. Ovoid.
4. Sanitary.

33) Impression material of choice in patients with submuscos fibrosis is: r
1. Zinc oxide eugenol.
2. Addition silicon.
3. Condensation silicon.
4. Plaster of pans.

34) The correctly placed posterior palatal seal creates:
1. Vacuum in posterior part of palate.
2. Vacuum beneath the maxillary denture.
3. Partial vacuum beneath the maxillary denture.
4. A close adaptation of maxillary denture at tuberosity.

35) Anterior vibrating line is located on:
1. Soft palatal tissue.
2. Hard palatal tissue.
3. Either on soft or hard palatal tissue.
4. Posterior to fovea palatini.

36) A edentulous patient has a complaint that his denture becomes loose several hours after 1 wearing, this indicates:
1. An Improper extension of denture base.
2. A Deflective occlusal contacts.
3. A High vertical dimension.
4. An Over extended denture flanges.

37. The most suitable margin design for porcelain crown is:
1. Shoulder.
2. Chemfer.
3. Shoulder with bevel.
4. Depends upon operators choice.

38) AH ceramic crowns are not indicated for young children because of:
1. Short clinical crown height.
2. Root formation is not completed.
3. Pulp horns are wide and high.
4. Maintenance of oral hygiene is difficult.

39) For a balanced occlusion, when condylar inclination is increased the compensating curve should be:
1. Shallow.
2. Decreased and Flat.
3. Increased and Prominent.
4. Reversed.

40. Only pure hinge movements of the mandible occur at:
1. Centric occlusion.
2. Centric relation.
3. Lateral excursion.
4. Terminal Hinge Position.

41) Tissue reaction that is common due to overextension of labial flanges of complete denture is:
1. Epulis Granuloma.
2. Epu]is Fissuratum.
3. Papillary Hyperplasia.
4. Pyogenic Granuloma.

42) Beading of the rigid major connector is done to:
1. Increase the rigidity.
2. Produce a positive contact with the tissue.
3. Increase the retention of RPD.
4. Improve the esthetics.

43) The first step in major connector construction is:
1. Design of stress bearing area.
2. Design of non stress bearing area.
3. Making the outline of the strap line.
4. Selection of the strap type.

44) The first step in surveying the. cast for Removable Partial Denture is:
1. Establishment of guiding plane.
2. Establishment of undercuts for retention.
3. Establishment of tooth contour for esthetics.
4. Establishment of interferences for major connector.

45) The terminal end of retentive arm of extracoronal retainer is placed at:
1. Gingival third.
2. Occlusal third.
3. Middle third.
4. Junction of middle and gingival third.

46) The resistance form is that shape of cavity which:
1. Prevents displacement of restoration.
2. Permits the restorations of withstand occlusal forces.
3. Allows adequate instrumentation.
4. Allows the restoration to withstandocclusal forces and prevent displacement.

47) Gutta Percha can effectively be sterilized by:
1. Hot salt sterilizer.
2. Chemical solutions.
3. Autoclaving.
4. Dry Heat.

48) The most important aspect of emergency treatment for an acute apical abscess is to:
1. Produce sedation.
2. Establish drainage.
3. Maintain obturations.
4. Adjust the occlusion.

49) A polyp may arise in connection with:
1. Chronic open pulpitis.
2. Pulp necrosis.
3. Acute pulpitis.
4. A chronic periapical lesion.

50) Beveling the pulpoaxial line angle of a Class n cavity is done to:
1. Increase the strength of the restoration.
2. Improved marginal adaptation.
3. To prevent the fracture of enamel.
4. To prevent the fracture of amalgam.
51) Which one of the following is used to bleach a discolored, endodontically treated tooth?
1. Ether.
2. Chloroform.
3. Superoxol.
4. Sodium hypochlorite.

52) The primary function of access openings is to:
1. Facilitate canal medication.
2. Provide good access for irrigation.
3. Aid in locating canal orifices.
4. Provide straight line access to the apex.

53) A cold test best localizes:
1. Pain of Pulpal origin.
2. Pulp necrosis.
3. Periodontal pain.
4. Referred pain.

54) Calcification of pulp:
1. Is in response to ageing.
2. Does not relate to the periodontal condition.
3. Precedes internal resorption.
4. Indicates presence of additional canal.

55) How soon after contamination by moisture does a zinc containing amalgam restoration start expanding?
1. 12 hours.
2. 1-2 days.
3. 3-5 days.
4. One week.

56) Creep value of which of the following is the highest?
1. Low copper amalgam alloy.
2. Admix alloy.
3. Single composition alloys.
4. Creep value of all the above-mentioned alloys is same.

57) Which of the following cements bonds to tooth structure, which has an anticariogenic effect, has a degree of translucency and does not irritate the pulp?
1. Polycarboxylate cement.
2. Resin cement.
3. Silicate cement.
4. Glass lonomer cement.

58) The microorganism causing smooth surface dental caries is:
1. Streptococcus viridans.
2. Streptococcus mutans.
3. Streptococcus salivarius.
4. Lactobacillus.

59) Electric pulp tests may not be performed on patients who have:
1. Hip Implant.
2. Pace maker.
3. Dental Implant.
4. Prosthetic eye.

60) Instrument that has a 4-digit formula:
1. Angle Former.
2. Hoe.
3. Hatchet.
4. Spoon Excavator.

61) The distance between 2 holes in a rubber dam sheet is ideally:
1. 6mm.
2. 6.3 mm.
3. 6.5 mm.
4. 6.9mm.

62) For root canal therapy of maxillary canine (Distal caries), the isolation done is:
1. 2nd premolar to opposite lateral incisor.
2. 1st molar to opposite lateral incisor.
3. Adjacent 2 teeth of both the sides.
4. Not required, only the tooth to be treated.

63) How much fraction of methyl mercury is absorbed from the Gut:
1. 20%.
2. 2. 50%.
3. 3. 80%.
4. 4. 100%.

64) What fraction of inhaled mercury vapour is retained in the body?
1. 45-55%.
2. 55-65%.
3. 65-85%.
4. 85%.

65) The lowest blood mercury level at which the earliest non specific symptom starts appearing at:
1. 25ng/ml.
2. 35ng/ml.
3. 40ng/ml.
4. 45 ng/ml.

66) In which condition Papilla preservation flap is indicated?
1. Infrabony defects.
2. One walled defects.
3. Horizontal bone loss in upper anterior teeth.
4. Crater types of bony defect.

67) Which one of the following is die role of barrier membrane in GTR?
1. To help overall healing.
2. Prevention of epithelial migration.
3. To stop bleeding.
4. To prevent the underlying tissues from the infection.

68) Avulsed tooth may be stored in saliva for upto:
1. 2 hours.
2. 3 hours.
3. 4 hours.
4. Indefinitely.

69) The most used selective medium for Streptococcus Mutans is:
1. Mac Conkey Medium.
2. Mitis Salivarius Bacitracin Agar.
3. Nutrient Agar.
4. Tellurite Medium.

70) The patient Pulpotomy Technique was advocated by:
1. Bowenin 1974.
2. Clarice in 1976.
3. Cvek in 1978.
4. Willetinl980.

71) Distal Shoe was first advocated by whom in 1929 ?
1. Wilson.
2. Willet
3. Wilhem
4. Rocfae.

72) The biofilms found found on tooth surfaces are termed as :
1. Enamel.
2. Denial Caries
3. Dental plaque.
4. Saliva.

73) Incipient or recurrent caries can be detected before they are visible on the radiograph by:
1. Visible light
2. Ultrasonic light.
3. Fibreoptk transillumination.
4. Digital Imaging fibreoptic transillumination.

74) Stainless steel crowns are contraindicated in:
1. Medically compromised patient (VSD. ASD).
2. After endodontic therapy
3. Rampant caries.
4. Amelogenesis Imperfecta.

75) The first community Water Fluoridation was carried out in:
1. 945, Colorado.
2. 1945, Grand Rapids.
3. 1945, Oak Park.
4. 1945, Evanston.

76) The most common reason for the removal of impacted mandibular third molars:
1. Referred pain.
2. Orthodontic treatment.
3. Recurrent pericoronitis.
4. Chronic periodontal disease.

77) The antibiotic cover is mandatory before extraction in the following condition of the heart:
1. Ischemic heart disease (IHD).
2. Hypertension.
3. Congestive cardiac failure. :
4. Congenital heart disease.

78) Blue sclera is characteristic of:
1. Amelogenesis imperfecta.
2. Tetracycline hypoplasia.
3. Fluorosis.
4. Osteogenesis imperfecta.

79) A specimen for a biopsy should be taken from:
1. Necrotic area.
2. Subdermal layer.
3. Border of an ulcerated area.
4. Centre of an ulcerated area.

80) Pencillin exerts its effect on bacteria by interfering with:
1. Cellular respiration.
2. Cellular oxidation.
3. Cell wall synthesis.
4. Cellular division.

81) Bence Jones protein found in the urine may be suggestive of:
1. Hyperparathyroidim.
2. Hodgkins disease.
3. Multiple myeloma
4. Christian's syndrome.

82) The syndrome which is associated with predisposition to the development of carcinoma of oral mucous membrane is:
1. Gardner's syndrome.
2. Oster - Rendu - Weber syndrome.
3. Sturge - Weber syndrome.
4. Plummer - Vinson syndrome.

83) Anterior open bite occurs in fracture of:
1. Symphysis.
2. Bilateral angles.
3. Bilateral condyles.
4. Unilateral condyle.

84) Zygomatic arch fractures are best seen in:
1. JxSubmentovertex view.
2. Occipitomental view.
3. Lateral view of skull.
4. Postero-anterior view of skull.

85) Bilateral subconjunctival ecchymosis is not associated with:
1. Le-Fort II fracture.
2. Le-Fort HI fracture.
3. Naso ethemoidal complex fracture.
4. Le-Fort I fracture.

86) The Local Drug Delivery system "ELYZOL" contains:
1. Metronidazole.
2. Penicillin.
3. Sanguinarine.
4. Tetracycline.

87) The electronic probing system "Foster Miller Probe" detects:
1. Only the pocket depth.
2. Only the CEJ.
3. CEJ and pocket depth.
4. Furcation involvement.

88) Purulent exudation from the gingival nulcii is an indication of:
1. Deep pockets.
2. Severe periodontal attachment loss.
3. Nature of the inflammatory changes in the pocket wall.
4. Shallow pockets.

89) An advanced diagnostic technique which has been suggested as an alternative to culture methods is:
1. Phase contrast microscopy.
2. Direct immunofluorescence.
3. Latex agglutination.
4. Indirect irnmunofluorscent microscope assays.

90) The pocket epithelium shows a series of histopathological changes. Which of the following is true in this regard?
1. Necrotic changes.
2. Proliferative changes.
3. Degenerative changes.
4. Proliferative and degenerative changes.

91. The consistency of the subgingival calculus is described to be:
1. Clay like
2. Flint like.
3. Brick like.
4. Soft.

92) Which type of gingival enlargement is seen in puberty?
1. Interdental papillae appear bulbous but facial gingival is not affected.
2. Interdental papillae and facial gingival both are enlarged.
3. 3. Interdental gingival, marginal gingival and attached gingival all are enlarged.
4. Both marginal gingival and attached gingival are enlarged.

93) Which of the following is the diagnostic characteristic of peripheral giant cell granuloma?
1. Mass of granulation tissue.
2. Multinuclear giant cells.
3. Keliod like enlargement.
4. Epithelium is atrophic in some areas.

94) How many osseous walls are present in one walled vertical defects?
1. One wall present.
2. Two wall present.
3. Three wall present.
4. Four wall present.

95) What do you understand by Isograft?
1. Bone taken from same individual.
2. Bone taken from genetically similar individual.
3. Bone taken from identical twin.
4. Bone taken from the same individual.

96) Which percentage of sodium fluoride is used in Iontophoresis?
1. 1%.
2. 2%.
3. 3%.
4. 4 %

97) Which microorganism has 90% presence in localized aggressive periodontitis?
1. Spirochetes.
2. P. Gingivalis.
3. P. Intermedia.
4. A. Actinomyecetemcomitans.

98) Which radiographk technique gives three-dimensional view of the alveolar bony defects?
1. Intra-oral radiograph.
2. Digital intra-oral radiography.
3. Oithopantamograph.
4. Computed Tomography.

99. Which of the following soft tissue responses may occur as a reaction to orthodontic bands?
1. Gingivitis.
2. Gingival fibrosis.
3. Ulcerative gingivitis.
4. Fulminating periodontitis.

100) Cephalometrics is useful in assessing all of the following relationships except:
1. Tooth to tooth.
2. Bone to bone.
3. Tooth to bone.
4. Soft palate to gingiva.
101) An 8 year old child with normal tooth calcification and eruption has primary mandibular second molar extracted. The resulting space should be:
1. Maintained until the premolar root is 2/3 developed.
2. Closed slightly to accommodate the smaller premolar.
3. Ignored, because the second premolar will erupt in a short time.
4. Left untreated, because the difference in size between me primary molar and the premolar will compensate for any drifting that might occur.

102) Relative to a heterogeneous population, the incidence of malocclusk in
in a homogeneous population generally is:
1. Lower.
2. Slightly higher.
3. Significantly higher.
4. About the same.

103) One of the greatest advantages of using extraoral anchorage is mat:
1. More force can be applied.
2. It has direct reciprocal action on the opposing arch.
3. It permits posterior movement of teeth in one arch without adversely disturbing the opposite arch.
4. It can be used for all type of malocclusion.

104) The Supervision of a child's development of occlusion is most critical at ages:
1. 3-6 years.
2. 7-10 years.
3. 11-14 years.
4. 14-17 years.

105) With a flush terminal plane, permanent first molars will:
1. Initially be Class II.
2. Initially be Class HI.
3. Immediately assume a normal relationship.
4. Erupt immediately into an end to end relationship.

106) Read the following carefully.
a. Spheno-occipital synchondrosis.
b. Mandibular condyle.
c. Frontomaxillary suture,
d. Nasal septum,
e. Alveolar process.
Which of the following are sites of cartilaginous growth postnatally?
1. a & b.
2. a, b, & d.
3. b, c, & e.
4. c & e.

107) The Histological section of tooth under orthodontic force representing an avascular area in the periodontal ligament is often referred as:
1. Erdntalzone.
2. Hyalanized zone.
3. Undermining zone.
4. Clear zone.

108) Which is the most often and most stable used plane for the superimposition of lateral cephalograms in studying the growth of a child?
1. Frankfort plane.
2. S-N Plane.
3. Mandibular plane.
4. Occlusal plane.

109) Malocclusion representing a transverse deficiency is often referred to as:
1. Open bite.
2. Closed bite.
3. Cross bite.
4. Deep bite.

110) Which of the following cephalometric landmarks is not a midline structure?
1. Nasion.
2. Menton.
3. Sella.
4. Gonion

111) Which one of the following is the result of applying a load to a wire below its modulus of elasticity on a load deflection diagram?
1. Fracture of the wire.
2. Permanent deformation.
3. Spring back.
4. Increase in stiffness.

112) The purpose of incorporation of a coil into a cantilever spring is:
1. Activation of the spring.
2. Increase the force.
3. Decrease the force.
4. Decrease the stiffness of the wire.

113) Which aspect of malocclusion is the most common among Indian population?
1. An oversized lower jaw.
2. Teeth that don't touch when jaw is fully closed.
3. Spacing between the teeth.
4. Crowded teeth.

114) The first reaction that takes place when an orthodontist attempts active tooth movement with a removable appliance is:
1. Pressure and tension zones from in the periodontal ligament.
2. Force is applied on the tooth.
3. Osteoclasts create undermining resorption.
4. Tooth moves by direct resorption.

115) The tooth that is used to identify the type of occlusion universally is:
1. Second molar.
2. Central incisor.
3. Canine.
4. First molar.

116) Anchorage obtained from the nape of the neck represents:
1. Occipital anchorage.
2. Cervical anchorage.
3. Facial anchorage.
4. Parietal anchorage.

117) Which of the following is the most important factor to be considered before attempting to close a midline diastema using a removable appliance?
1. The size of the teeth.
2. Age of the patient.
3. Vitality of the teeth.
4. Amount of overjet.

118) The Y-axis is also known as growth axis because:
1. Its axis is parallel to patient's growth in height.
2. It is an indicator of the direction of growth pattern.
3. It is an indicator of the amount of facial growth.
4. It increases in size as the growth increases.

119) If an edgewise bracket is not pressed completely on to a tooth on the mesial side while bonding, the side effect would be:
1. Intrusion of tooth.
2. Extrusion of tooth.
3. Rotation of tooth.
4. Breakage of Bracket.

120) Considering the growth of the face in all three planes, growth ceases last in which direction?
1. Antero posterior.
2. Sagittal.
3. Transverse.
4. Vertical.

121) The most preferred approach for pituitary surgery at the present time is:
1. Transcranial.
2. Transethmoidal.
3. Transphenoidal.
4. Transcallosal.

122) The normal range of serum osmolality (in mOsm/L) is:
1. 270 to 285.
2. 2. 300 to 320.
3. 3. 350 to 375.
4. 4. 200 to 250.

123) Afferent component of corneal reflex is mediated by:
1. Vagus nerve.
2. Facial nerve.
3. Trigeminal nerve.
4. Glossopharyngeal nerve.

124) Which of the following is a tumor of odontogenic epithelium with ductlike structures and well encapsulated lesion that prevents need for block resection:
1. Adenamatoid odentogenic tumour.
2. Pindborg tumour.
3. Odontogenic myxoma.
4. Ameloblastic fibroma.

125) In TNM classification size:
1. > 2 cm.
2. > 4 cm
3. < 4 cm
4. 4 cm with invasion of adjacent structure.

126) Dense in dente is most commonly seen in:
1. Premolars.
2. Paramolars.
3. Lateral incisors.
4. Maxillary canine.

127) Taurodontism is usually seen in:
1. Mesiodens.
2. Incisor with talon/cusp.
3. Mandibular first molar.
4. Maxillary premolars.

128) Ground glass appearance in bone is seen in:
1. Hyper parathyroidism.
2. Fibrous dysplasia.
3. Condensing osteities.
4. Osteiopetrosis.

129) A radiopaque line is observed in the dentin underlying a three month old Class n amalgam restoration. Which of the following bases was used in this restoration?
1. Calcium hydroxide.
2. Zinc phosphate cement.
3. Zinc oxide eugeaol
4. Zinc oxide eogenol and formacresol.

130) A diagnosis of small occlusal cavities is most readily made by:
1. Bite-wing radiographs.
2. 2. Periapical radiographs.
3. Transilluminarion.
4. An explorer and compressed air.

131) An affected male infant born to normal parents could be an example of all of the following, except:
1. An Autosomal dominant disorder.
2. An Autosomal recessive disorder.
3. A polygenic disorder.
4. A vertically transmitted disorder.

132) A child with a small head, minor anomalies of the face including a thin upper lip, growth delay, and developmental disability can have all of the following, except:
1. A chromosomal syndrome.
2. A teratogenic syndrome.
3. A Mendelian syndrome.
4. A polygenic syndrome.

133) In a family, the father has widely spaced eyes, increased facial hair and deafness. One of the three children has deafness with similar facial features. The mother is normal. Which one of the following is most likely pattern of inheritance hi this case?
1. Autosomal dominant.
2. Autosomal recessive.
3. X- linked dominant.
4. X-linked recessive.

134) All of the following cell types contain the enzyme telomerase which protects the length of telomeres at the end of chromosomes, except:
1. Germinal.
2. Somatic.
3. Haemopoetic.
4. Tumour.

135) All are symptoms of opiate withdrawals except:
1. Diarrhea.
2. Lacrimation.
3. Mydriasis.
4. Excessive speech.

136) Which of the following inhalational agents is the induction agent of choice in children?
1. Methoxyflurane.
2. Sevoflurane.
3. Desflurane.
4. Isoflurane.

137) Which of the following is not a sign of stellate ganglion block?
1. Meiosis.
2. Exopthalmus.
3. Nasal congestion.
4. Conjuctival redness.

138) Which of the following intravenous induction agents is the most suitable for day care surgery?
1. Morphine.
2. Ketamine
3. Propofol
4. Diazepam

139) A 5 year old patient is scheduled for tonsillectomy. On the day of
surgery he had running nose, temperature 37.5° C and dry cough. Which of the following should be the most appropriate decision for surgery?
1. Surgery should be cancelled.
2. Can proceed for surgery if chest is clear and there is no history of asthma.
3. Should get x-ray chest before proceeding for surgery.
4. Cancel surgery for 3 week and patient to be on antibiotic.

140) During phagocytosis, the metabolic process called respiratory burst involves the activation of:
1. Oxidase.
2. Hydrolase.
3. Peroxidase.
4. Dehydrogenase.

141) Vitamin B12 acts as coenzyme to which one of the following enzymes?
1. Isocitrate dehydrogenase.
2. Homocysteine methyl transferase.
3. Glycogen synthase.
4. G-6-P dehydrogenase.

142) The ligand-receptor complex dissociates in the endosome because:
1. Of its large size.
2. The vesicle looses its clathrin coat.
3. Of the acidic pH of the vesicle.
4. Of the basic pH of the vesicle.

143) The human plasma lipoprotein containing the highest percentage of triacylglycerol by weight is:
1. VLDL.
2. Chylomicrons.
3. HDL.
4. LDL.

144) The sigma (o) subunit of prokaryotic RNA Polymerase:
1. Binds the antibiotic Rifampicin.
2. Is inhibited by cc-amanitin.
3. Specifically recognizes the promoter site.
4. Is part of the core enzyme.

145) Which type of RNA has percentage of modified base:
1. mRNA.
2. tRNA.
3. rRNA.
4. snRNA.

146) Proteins are linear polymers of amino acids. They fold into compact structures. Sometimes, these folded structures associate to form homo- or hetero-dimers. Which one of the following refers to this associated form?
1. Denatured state.
2. Molecular aggregation.
3. Precipitation.
4. Quaternary structure.

147) The structural proteins are involved in maintaining the shape of a cell or in the formation of matrices in the body. The shape of these proteins is:
1. Globular.
2. Fibrous.
3. Stretch of beads.
4. Planar.

148) The major purpose of randomization in a clinical trial is to:
1. Facilitate double blinding,
2. Help ensure the study subjects are representative of general population.
3. Ensure the groups are comparable on base line characteristics.
4. Reduce selection bias in allocation to treatment.

149) The purpose of double blinding in clinical trials is to:
1. Achieve comparability between study and control groups.
2. Avoid observer bias.
3. Avoid subject bias.
4. Avoid observer and subject bias.

150) When a drug is evaluated for its usefulness in controlled conditions, it is termed as a trial signifying:
1. Efficacy.
2. Effectiveness.
3. Efficiency.
4. Effect modification.
151) Lipoprotein most strongly associated with coronary heart disease is:
1. Apolipoproteins.
2. VLDL
3. HDL
4. Total liproproteins

152) All the following are true hi a randomized control trial (RCT) except:
1. Baseline characteristics of intervention and control groups should be similar.
2. Investigator's bias is minimized by double blinding.
3. The sample size required depends on the hypothesis.
4. The drop-outs from the trial should be excluded from the analysis.

153) Joint erosions are not a feature of:
1. Rheumatoid arthritis.
2. Psoriasis.
3. Multicentric reticulohistiocytosis.
4. Systemic lupus erythematosus.

154) Nevirapine is a:
1. Protease inhibitor.
2. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor.
3. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor.
4. Fusion inhibitor.

155) Which one of the following clinical findings excludes the diagnosis of polymyositis?
1. Neck muscle involvement
2. Extraocular muscle involvement
3. Dysphagia.
4. Abdominal muscle involvement

156) All of the following are the known causes of osteoporosis except
1. Fluorosis,
2. hypogonadism.
3. Hyperthyroidism.
4. Hyperparathyroidism.

157. All of the atherosclerosis
1. Increased waist-hip ration.
2. Hyperhomocysteinemia.
3. Decreased fibrinoeen levels.
4. Decreased HDL levels.

158) A young giri has coasmned barium carbonate with suicidal intent. She
complains of generalized muscle weakness. The most likely electrolvte abnormalitv is:
1. Hyponatremia.
2. Hypocalcemia.
3. Hypokalemia.
4. Hypomagnesemia.

159) All of the following antibacterial agents by inhibiting cell wall synthesis except ?
1. Carbapenems.
2. Monobactams.
3. Cephamycins.
4. Nitrofurantoin.

160) A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin. His blood culture hi special laboratory media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown hi culture?
1. Pasturella spp.
2. Francisella spp.
3. Bartonella spp
4. Brucella spp.

161) Which one of the following statement is true regarding pathogenicity of Mycobacteria species?
1. M tuberculosis is more pathogenic than M.bovis to the humans.
2. M. kansasii can cause a disease indistinguishable from tuberculosis.
3. M.africanum infection is acquired from the environmental source.
4. M.marinum is resoponsible for tubercular lymphadenopathy.

162) A diabetic patient developed cellutitis due to Staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All the following antibiotics will be appropriate except:
1. Vancomycin.
2. Imipenem.
3. Teichoplanin.
4. Linezolid.

163) Middle meningeal artery is direct branch of:
1. External carotid artery.
2. Internal maxillary artery.
3. Superficial temporal artery.
4. Middle cerebral artery.

164) Calcitonin is secreted by:
1. Thyroid gland.
2. Parathyroid gland.
3. Adrenal glands.
4. Ovaries.

165) Which of the following conditions is least likely to present as an eccentric osteolytic lesion:
1. Aneurysmal bone cyst.
2. Giant cell tumor.
3. Fibrous cortical defect.
4. Simple bone cyst.

166) bisphosphonates act by :
1. Increasing the osteoid formation.
2. Increasing the mineralisation of osteoid.
3. Decreasing the osteoclast mediated resorptionof bone.
4. Decreasing the parathyroid hormone secretion.

167) All the statements are true about exostosis except:
1. It occurs at the growing end of bone.
2. Growth continues after skeletal maturity.
3. It is covered by cartilaginous cap.
4. Malignant transformation may occur.

168) "Rugger Jersey Spine" is seen in:
1. Fluorosis.
2. Achondroplasia.
3. Renal Osteodystrophy.
4. Marian's Syndrome.

169) Brown tumours are seen in:
1. Hyperparathyroidism.
2. Pigmented villonodular synovitis.
3. Osteomalacia.
4. Neurofibromatosis.

170) Which of the following malignant tumors is radioresistant?
1. Swing's sarcoma.
2. Retinoblastoma.
3. Osteosarcoma.
4. Neuroblastoma.

171) A child is below the third percentile for height. Growth velocity is normal, but chronologic age is more than skeletal age. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Constitutional delay in growth.
2. Genetic short stature.
3. Primordial dwarfism.
4. Hypopituitarism.

172) The process underlying differences in expression of a gene, according to which parent has transmitted, is called:
1. Anticipation.
2. Mosaicism.
3. Non-penetrance.
4. Genomic imprinting.

173) Megaloblastic anaemia due to folic acid deficiency is commonly due to :
1. Inadequate dietary intake.
2. Defective intestinal absorption.
3. Absence of folic acid binding protein in serum.
4. Absence of glutamic acid in the intestine.

174) Acinic cell carcinomas of the salivary gland arise most often in the:
1. Parotid salivary gland.
2. Minor salivary glands.
3. Submandibular salivary gland.
4. Sublingual salivary gland.

175) Fine needle aspiation cytology is not suitable for diagnosing:
1. Tubercular lymphadenitis.
2. Papillary carcinoma thyroid.
3. Plasmacytoma.
4. Aneurymal bone cyst.

176) All of the following immunohistochemical markers are positive in the neoplastic cells of granulocytic sarcoma, except:
1. CD45RO.
2. CD 43.
3. Myeloperoxidase.
4. Lysozyme.

177) Which one of the following antibacterials should not be used with d-tubocurarine?
1. Norfloxacin.
2. Streptomycin.
3. Doxycycline.
4. Cefotaxime.

178) Which one of the following drugs is an antipseudomonal penicillin?
1. Cephalexin.
2. Cloxacillin.
3. Piperacillin.
4. Dicloxacillin.

179) All of the following are therapeutic uses of Penicillin G, except:
1. Bacterial meningitis.
2. Rickettsial Infection.
3. Syphilis. :
4. Anthrax.

180) Which one of the folio wing muscle relaxant has the maximum duration of action?
1. Atracurium.
2. Vecuronium.
3. Rocuronium.
4. Doxacurium.

181) Which one of the following local anaesthetics belongs to the ester group?
1. Procaine.
2. Bupivacaine.
3. Lignocaine.
4. Mepivacaine.

182) Which one of the following agents sensitises the myocardium to catecholamines?
1. Isoflurane.
2. Ether.
3. Halothane.
4. Propofol

183) Which of the following organs is not involved in calcium homeostasis ?
1. Kidneys.
2. Skin
3. Intestines.
4. Lungs.

184) Which of the following secretions has a very high pH?
1. Gastric Juice
2. Pancreatic juice.
3. Bile in gall bladder.
4. Saliva.

185) The most common retrobulbar orbital mass in adults is:
1. Neurofibroma.
2. Meningioma.
3. Cavernous haemangioma.
4. Schwannoma.

186) Expansile lytic osseous metastases are characteristic of primary malignancy of :
1. Kidney.
2. Bronchus.
3. Breast.
4. Prostate.

187) All of them use non-ionizing radiation, except
1. Uhrasooography.
2. Thennosraphv.
3. MRL
4. Radiography.

188) Mixed tumours of the salivary glands are :
1. Most common in submandibular gland.
2. Usually malignaaL
3. Most common in parotid gland.
4. Associated with calculi.

189) A malignant rumour of childhood, that metastasizes to bones
most often, is:
1. Wilm’s tumour.
2. Neuroblastoma.
3. Adrenal gland tumours.
4. Granulosa cell tumour of ovary.

190. All of the following radioisotopes are used as systemic radionucleide, except:
1. Phosphorus-32.
2. Strontium-89.
3. Iridium-192.
4. Samarium-153.

191) Phosphorous-32 emits:
1. Beta particles.
2. Alfa particles.
3. Neutrons.
4. X-rays.

192) Which one of the following imaging techniques gives maximum radiation exposure to the patient?
1. Chest X-ray.
2. MRI.
3. CT scan
4. Bone scan.

193) Which one of the following has the maximum ionization potential?
1. Electron.
2. Proton.
3. Helium ion.
4. Gamma () - Photon.

194) Which of the following is not a major criteria for diagnosis of multiple myeloma ?
1. Lytic bone lesions.
2. Plasmacytoma on tissue biopsy.
3. Bone marrow plasmacytosis >30%.
4. 'M' spike >3g% for Ig G, >2g% for Ig A.

195) Which of the following medications is contraindicated in patients with allergy to sulphonamides?
1. Levobunolol.
2. Bimatoprost.
3. Brinzolamide.
4. Brimonidine.

196) Laryngocele arises as a herniation of laryngeal mucosa through the following membrane:
1. Thyrohyoid.
2. Cricothyroid.
3. Crico-tracheal.
4. Cricosternal.

197. The following statements about thyroglossal cyst are true, except:
1. Frequent cause of anterior midline neck masses in the first decade of life.
2. The cyst is located within 2 cm of the midline.
3. Incision and Drainage is the treatment of choice.
4. The swelling moves upwards on protrusion of tongue.

198) Neointimal hyperplasia causes vascular graft failure as a result of hypertrophy of:
1. Endothelial cells.
2. Collagen fibers.
3. Smooth muscle cells. :
4. Elastic fibers.

199) Dacron vascular graft is a:
1. Nontextile synthetic.
2. Textile synthetic.
3. Nontextile biologic.
4. Textile biologic.

200) Mycotic abscesses are due to:
1. Bacterial infection.
2. Fungal infection.
3. Viral infection.
4. Mixed infection.

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